An ant is crawling on a patch of sand. As
it crawls, it traces a line in the sand.
By pure chance the line that it traces curves
and recrosses itself in such a way that it
ends up looking like a recognizable caricature
of Winston Churchill. Has the ant traced
a picture of Winston Churchill, a picture
that depicts Churchill?
Most people would say, on a little reflection,
that it has not. The ant, after all, has
never seen Churchill, Or even a picture of
Churchill, arid it had no intention of depicting
Churchill. It simply traced a line (and even
that was unintentional), a line that we can
'see as' a picture of Churchill.
We can express this by saying that the line
is not 'in itself' a representation1 of anything
rather than anything else. Similarity (of
a certain very complicated sort) to the features
of Winston Churchill is not sufficient to
make something represent or refer to Churchill.
Nor is it necessary: in our community the
printed shape 'Winston Churchill', the spoken
words 'Winston Churchill', and many other
things are used to represent Churchill (though
not pictorially), while not having the sort
of similarity to Churchill that a picture
even a line drawing has. If similarity
is not necessary or sufficient to make something
represent something else, how can anything
be necessary or sufficient for this purpose?
How on earth can one thing represent (or
'stand for', etc.) a different thing?
The answer may seem easy. Suppose the ant
had seen Winston Churchill, and suppose that
it had the intelligence and skill to draw
a picture of him. Suppose it produced the
caricature intentionally. Then the line would
have represented Churchill.
On the other hand, suppose the line had the
shape WINSTON CHURCHILL. And suppose this
was just accident (ignoring the improbability
involved). Then the 'printed shape' WINSTON
CHURCHILL would not have represented Churchill,
although that printed shape does represent
Churchill when it occurs in almost any book
today.
So it may seem that what is necessary for
representation, or what is mainly necessary
for representation, is intention.
But to have the intention that anything,
even private language (even the words 'Winston
Churchill' spoken in my mind and not out
loud), should represent Churchill, I must
have been able to think about Churchill in
the first place. If lines in the sand, noises,
etc., cannot 'in themselves' represent anything,
then how is it that thought forms can 'in
themselves' represent any thing? Or can they?
How can thought reach out and 'grasp' what
is external?
Some philosophers have, in the past, leaped
from this sort of consideration to what they
take to be a proof that the mind is essentially
non-physical in nature. The argument is simple;
what we said about the ant's curve applies
to any physical object. No physical object
can, in itself, refer to one thing rather
than to another; nevertheless, thoughts in
the mind obviously do succeed in referring
to one thing rather than another. So thoughts
(and hence the mind) are of an essentially
different nature than physical objects. Thoughts
have the characteristic of intentionality
they can refer to something else; nothing
physical has 'intentionality', save as that
intentionality is derivative from some employment
of that physical thing by a mind. Or so it
is claimed. This is too quick; just postulating
mysterious powers of mind solves nothing.
But the problem is very real. How is intentionality,
reference, possible? Magical theories of
reference
We saw that the ant's 'picture' has no necessary
connection with Winston Churchill. The mere
fact that the 'picture' bears a 'resemblance'
to Churchill does nor make it into a real
picture, nor does it make it a representation
of Churchill. Unless the ant is an intelligent
ant (which it isn't) and knows about Churchill
(which it doesn't), the curve it traced is
not a picture or even a representation of
anything. Some primitive people believe that
some representations (in particular, names)
have a necessary connection with their bearers;
that to know the 'true name' of someone or
something gives one power over it. This power
comes from the magical connection between
the name and the bearer of the name; once
one realizes that a name only has a contextual,
contingent, conventional connection with
its bearer, it is hard to see why knowledge
of the name should have any mystical significance.
What is important to realize is that what
goes for physical pictures also goes for
mental images, and for mental representations
in general; mental representations no more
have a necessary connection with what they
represent than physical representations do.
The contrary supposition is a survival of
magical thinking.
Perhaps the point is easiest to grasp in
the case of mental images. (Perhaps the first
philosopher to grasp the enormous significance
of this point, even if he was not the first
to actually make it, was Wittgenstein.) Suppose
there is a planet somewhere on which human
beings have evolved (or been deposited by
alien spacemen, or what have you). Suppose
these humans, although otherwise like us,
have never seen trees. Suppose they have
never imagined trees (perhaps vegetable life
exists on their planet only in the form of
molds). Suppose one day a picture of a tree
is accidentally dropped on their planet by
a spaceship which passes on without having
other contact with them. Imagine them puzzling
over the picture. What in the world is this?
All sorts of speculations occur to them:
a building, a canopy, even an animal of some
kind. But suppose they never come close to
the truth.
For us the picture is a representation of
a tree. For these humans the picture only
represents a strange object, nature and function
unknown. Suppose one of them has a mental
image which is exactly like one of my mental
images of a tree as a result of having seen
the picture. His mental image is not a representation
of a tree. It is only a representation of
the strange object (whatever it is) that
the mysterious picture represents.
Still, someone might argue that the mental
image is in fact a representation of a tree,
if only because the picture which caused
this mental image was itself a representation
of a tree to begin with. There is a causal
chain from actual trees to the mental image
even if it is a very strange one.
But even this causal chain can be imagined
absent. Suppose the 'picture of the tree'
that the spaceship dropped was not really
a picture of a tree, but the accidental result
of some spilled paints. Even if it looked
exactly like a picture of a tree, it was,
in truth, no more a picture of a tree than
the ant's 'caricature' of Churchill was a
picture of Churchill. We can even imagine
that the spaceship which dropped the 'picture'
came from a planet which knew nothing of
trees. Then the humans would still have mental
images qualitatively identical with my image
of a tree, but they would not be images which
represented a tree any more than anything
else.
The same thing is true of words. A discourse
on paper might seem to be a perfect description
of trees, but if it was produced by monkeys
randomly hitting keys on a typewriter for
millions of years, then the words do not
refer to anything. If there were a person
who memorized those words and said them in
his mind without understanding them, then
they would not refer to anything when thought
in the mind, either.
Imagine the person who is saying those words
in his mind has been hypnotized. Suppose
the words are in Japanese, and the person
has been told that he understands Japanese.
Suppose that as he thinks those words he
has a 'feeling of understanding'. (Although
if someone broke into his train of thought
and asked him, what the words he was thinking
meant, he would discover he couldn't say.)
Perhaps the illusion would be so perfect
that the person could even fool a Japanese
telepath! But if he couldn't use the words
in the right contexts, answer questions about
what he 'thought', etc., then he didn't understand
them.
By combining these science fiction stories
I have been telling, we can contrive a case
in which someone thinks words which are in
fact a description of trees in some language
and simultaneously has appropriate mental
images, but neither understands the words
nor knows what a tree is. We can even imagine
that the mental images were caused by paint-spills
(although the person has been hypnotized
to think that they are images of some thing
appropriate to his thought only, if he
were asked, he wouldn't be able to say of
what). And we can imagine that the language
the person is thinking in is one neither
the hypnotist nor the person hypnotized has
ever heard of perhaps it is just coincidence
that these 'nonsense sentences', as the hypnotist
supposes them to be, are a description of
trees in Japanese. In short, everything passing
before the person's mind might be qualitatively
identical with what was passing through the
mind of a Japanese speaker who was really
thinking about trees but none of it would
refer to trees.
All of this is really impossible, of course,
in the way that it is really impossible that
monkeys should by chance type out a copy
of Hamlet. That is to say that the probabilities
against it are so high as to mean it will
never really happen (we think). But it is
not logically impossible, or even physically
impossible. It could happen (compatibly with
physical law and, perhaps, compatibly with
actual conditions in the universe, if there
are lots of intelligent beings on other planets).
And if it did happen, it would be a striking
demonstration of an important conceptual
truth that even a large and complex system
of representations, both verbal and visual,
still does not have an intrinsic, built-in,
magical connection with what it represents
a connection independent of how it was
caused and what the dispositions of the speaker
or thinker are. And this is true whether
the system of representations (words and
images, in the case of the example) is physically
realized the words are written or spoken,
and the pictures are physical pictures
or only realized in the mind. Thought words
and mental pictures do not intrinsically
represent what they are about. The case of
the brains in a vat
Here is a science fiction possibility discussed
by philosophers: imagine that a human being
(you can imagine this to be yourself) has
been subjected to an operation by an evil
scientist. The person's brain (your brain)
has been removed from the body and placed
in a vat of nutrients which keeps the brain
alive. The nerve endings have been connected
to a super-scientific computer which causes
the person whose brain it is to have the
illusion that everything is perfectly normal.
There seem to be people, objects, the sky,
etc.; but really, all the person (you) is
experiencing is the result of electronic
impulses travelling from the computer to
the nerve endings. The computer is so clever
that if the person tries to raise his hand,
the feedback from the computer will cause
him to 'see' and 'feel' the hand being raised.
Moreover, by varying the program, the evil
scientist can cause the victim to 'experience'
(or hallucinate) any situation or environment
the evil scientist wishes. He can also obliterate
the memory of the brain operation, so that
the victim will seem to himself to have always
been in this environment. It can even seem
to the victim that he is sitting and reading
these very words about the amusing but quite
absurd supposition that there is an evil
scientist who removes people's brains from
their bodies and places them in a vat of
nutrients which keep the brains alive. The
nerve endings are supposed to be connected
to a super-scientific computer which causes
the person whose brain it is to have the
illusion that...
When this sort of possibility is mentioned
in a lecture on the Theory of Knowledge,
the purpose, of course, is to raise the classical
problem of scepticism with respect to the
external world in a modern way. (How do you
know you aren't in this predicament?) But
this predicament is also a useful device
for raising issues about the mind/world relationship.
Instead of having just one brain in a vat,
we could imagine that all human beings (perhaps
all sentient beings) are brains in a vat
(or nervous systems in a vat in case some
beings with just a minimal nervous system
already count as 'sentient'). Of course,
the evil scientist would have to be outside
or would he? Perhaps there is no evil scientist,
perhaps (though this is absurd) the universe
just happens to consist of automatic machinery
tending a vat full of brains and nervous
systems.
This time let us suppose that the automatic
machinery is programmed to give us all a
collective hallucination, rather than a number
of separate unrelated hallucinations. Thus,
when I seem to myself to be talking to you,
you seem to yourself to be hearing my words.
Of course, it is not the case that my words
actually reach your ears for you don't
have (real) ears, nor do I have a real mouth
and tongue. Rather, when I produce my words,
what happens is that the efferent impulses
travel from my brain to the computer, which
both causes me to 'hear' my own voice uttering
those words and 'feel' my tongue moving,
etc., and causes you to 'hear' my words,
'see' me speaking, etc. In this case, we
are, in a sense, actually in communication.
I am not mistaken about your real existence
(only about the existence of your body and
the 'external world', apart from brains).
From a certain point of view, it doesn't
even matter that 'the whole world' is a collective
hallucination; for you do, after all, really
hear my words when I speak to you, even if
the mechanism isn't what we suppose it to
be. (Of course, if we were two lovers making
love, rather than just two people carrying
on a conversation, then the suggestion that
it was just two brains in a vat might be
disturbing.)
I want now to ask a question which will seem
very silly and obvious (at least to some
people, including some very sophisticated
philosophers), but which will take us to
real philosophical depths rather quickly.
Suppose this whole story were actually true.
Could we, if we were brains in a vat in this
way, say or think that we were?
I am going to argue that the answer is 'No,
we couldn't.' In fact, I am going to argue
that the supposition that we are actually
brains in a vat, although it violates no
physical law, and is perfectly consistent
with everything we have experienced, can
not possibly be true. It cannot possibly
be true, because it is, in a certain way,
self-refuting.
The argument I am going to present is an
unusual one, and it took me several years
to convince myself that it is really right.
But it is a correct argument. What makes
it seem so strange is that it is connected
with some of the very deepest issues in philosophy.
(It first occurred to me when I was thinking
about a theorem in modern logic, the 'Skolem-Lφwenheim
Theorem', and I suddenly saw a connection
between this theorem and some arguments in
Wittgenstein's Philosophical Investigations.)
A 'self-refuting supposition' is one whose
truth implies its own falsity. For example,
consider the thesis that all general statements
are false. This is a general statement. So
if it is true, then it must be false. Hence,
it is false. Sometimes a thesis is called
'self-refuting' if it is the supposition
that the thesis is entertained or enunciated
that implies its falsity. For example, 'I
do not exist' is self-refuting if thought
by me (for any 'me'). So one can be certain
that one oneself exists, if one thinks about
it (as Descartes argued).
What I shall show is that the supposition
that we are brains in a vat has just this
property. If we can consider whether it is
true or false, then it is not true (I shall
show). Hence it is not true.
Before I give the argument, let us consider
why it seems so strange that such an argument
can be given (at least to philosophers who
subscribe to a 'copy' conception of truth).
We conceded that it is compatible with physical
law that there should be a world in which
all sentient beings are brains in a vat.
As philosophers say, there is a 'possible
world' in which all sentient beings are brains
in a vat. (This 'possible world' talk makes
it sound as if there is a place where any
absurd supposition is true, which is why
it can be very misleading in philosophy.)
The humans in that possible world have exactly
the same experiences that we do. They think
the same thoughts we do (at least, the same
words, images, thought-forms, etc., go through
their minds). Yet, I am claiming that there
is an argument we can give that shows we
are not brains in a vat. How can there be?
And why couldn't the people in the possible
world who really are brains in a vat give
it too?
The answer is going to be (basically) this:
although the people in that possible world
can think and 'say' any words we can think
and say, they cannot (I claim) refer to what
we can refer to. In particular, they cannot
think or say that they are brains in a vat
(even by thinking 'we are brains in a vat').
Turing's test
Suppose someone succeeds in inventing a computer
which can actually carry on an intelligent
conversation with one (on as many subjects
as an intelligent person might). How can
one decide if the computer is 'conscious'?
The British logician Alan Turing proposed
the following test: 2 let someone carry on
a conversation with the computer and a conversation
with a person whom he does not know. If he
cannot tell which is the computer and which
is the human being, then (assume the test
to be repeated a sufficient number of times
with different interlocutors) the computer
is conscious. In short, a computing machine
is conscious if it can pass the 'Turing Test'.
(The conversations are not to be carried
on face to face, of course, since the interlocutor
is not to know the visual appearance of either
of his two conversational partners. Nor is
voice to used, since the mechanical voice
might simply sound different from a human
voice. Imagine, rather, that the conversations
are all carried on via electric typewriter.
The interlocutor types in his statements,
questions, etc., and the two partners the
machine and the person respond via the
electric keyboard. Also, the machine may
lie asked 'Are you a machine', it might
reply, 'No, I'm an assistant in the lab here.')
The idea that this test is really a definitive
test of consciousness has been criticized
by a number of authors (who are by no means
hostile in principle to the idea that a machine
might be conscious). But this is not our
topic at this time. I wish to use the general
idea of the Turing test, the general idea
of a dialogic test of competence, for a different
purpose, the purpose of exploring the notion
of reference.
Imagine a situation in which the problem
is not to determine if the partner is really
a person or a machine, but is rather to determine
if the partner uses the words to refer as
we do. The obvious test is, again, to carry
on a conversation, and, if no problems arise,
if the partner 'passes' in the sense of being
indistinguishable from someone who is certified
in advance to be speaking the same language,
referring to the usual sorts of objects,
etc., to conclude that the partner does refer
to objects as we do. When the purpose of
the Turing test is as just described, that
is, to determine the existence of (shared)
reference, I shall refer to the test as the
Turing Test for Reference. And, just as philosophers
have discussed the question whether the original
Turing test is a definitive test for consciousness,
i. e. the question of whether a machine which
'passes' the test not just once but regularly
is necessarily conscious, so, in the same
way, I wish to discuss the question of whether
the Turing Test for Reference just suggested
is a definitive test for shared reference.
The answer will turn out to be 'No'. The
Turing Test for Reference is not definitive.
It is certainly an excellent test in practice;
but it is not logically impossible (though
it is certainly highly improbable) that someone
could pass the Turing Test for Reference
and not be referring to anything. It follows
from this, as we shall see, that we can extend
our observation that words (and whole texts
and discourses) do not have a necessary connection
to their referents. Even if we consider not
words by themselves but rules deciding what
words may appropriately be produced in certain
contexts even if we consider, in computer
jargon, programs for using words unless
those programs themselves refer to something
extralinguistic there is still no determinate
reference that those words possess. This
will be a crucial step in the process of
reaching the conclusion that the Brain-in-a-Vat
Worlders cannot refer to anything external
at all (and hence can not say that they are
Brain-in-a-Vat Worlders).
Suppose, for example, that I am in the Turing
situation (playing the 'Imitation Game',
in Turing's terminology) and my partner is
actually a machine. Suppose this machine
is able to win the game ('passes' the test).
Imagine the machine to be programmed to produce
beautiful responses in English to statements,
questions, remarks, etc. in English, but
that it has no sense organs (other than the
hookup to my electric typewriter), and no
motor organs (other than the electric typewriter).
(As far as I can make out, Turing does not
assume that the possession of either sense
organs or motor organs is necessary for consciousness
or intelligence.) Assume that not only does
the machine lack electronic eyes and ears,
etc., but that there are no provisions in
the machine's program, the program for playing
the Imitation Game, for incorporating inputs
from such sense organs, or for controlling
a body. What should we say about such a machine?
To me, it seems evident that we cannot and
should not attribute reference to such a
device. It is true that the machine can discourse
beautifully about, say, the scenery in New
England. But it could not recognize an apple
tree or an apple, a mountain or a cow, a
field or a steeple, if it were in front of
one.
What we have is a device for producing sentences
in response to sentences. But none of these
sentences is at all connected to the real
world. If one coupled two of these machines
and let them play the Imitation Game with
each other, then they would go on 'fooling'
each other forever, even if the rest of the
world disappeared! There is no more reason
to regard the machine's talk of apples as
referring to real world apples than there
is to regard the ant's 'drawing' as referring
to Winston Churchill.
What produces the illusion of reference,
meaning, intelligence, etc., here is the
fact that there is a convention of representation
which we have under which the machine's discourse
refers to apples, steeples, New England,
etc. Similarly, there is the illusion that
the ant has caricatured Churchill, for the
same reason. But we are able to perceive,
handle, deal with apples and fields. Our
talk of apples and fields is intimately connected
with our non-verbal transactions with apples
and fields. There are 'language entry rules'
which take us from experiences of apples
to such utterances as 'I see an apple', and
'language exit rules' which take us from
decisions expressed in linguistic form ('I
am going to buy some apples') to actions
other than speaking. Lacking either language
entry rules or language exit rules, there
is no reason to regard the conversation of
the machine (or of the two machines, in the
case we envisaged of two machines playing
the Imitation Game with each other) as more
than syntactic play. Syntactic play that
resembles intelligent discourse, to be sure;
but only as (and no more than) the ant's
curve resembles a biting caricature.
In the case of the ant, we could have argued
that the ant would have drawn the same curve
even if Winston Churchill had never existed.
In the case of the machine, we cannot quite
make the parallel argument; if apples, trees,
steeples and fields had not existed, then,
presumably, the programmers would not have
produced that same program. Although the
machine does nor perceive apples, fields,
or steeples, its creator-designers did. There
is some causal connection between the machine
and the real world apples, etc., via the
perceptual experience and knowledge of the
creator-designers. But such a weak connection
can hardly suffice for reference. Not only
is it logically possible, though fantastically
improbable, that the same machine could have
existed even if apples, fields, and steeples
had not existed; more important, the machine
is utterly insensitive to the continued existence
of apples, fields, steeples, etc. Even if
all these things ceased to exist, the machine
would still discourse just as happily in
the same way. That is why the machine cannot
be regarded as referring at all.
The point that is relevant for our discussion
is that there is nothing in Turing's Test
to rule out a machine which is programmed
to do nothing but play the Imitation Game,
and that a Machine which can do nothing but
play the Imitation Game is clearly not referring
any more than a record player is. Brains
in a vat (again)
Let us compare the hypothetical 'brains in
a vat' with the machines just described.
There are obviously important differences.
The brains in a vat do not have sense organs,
but they do have provision for sense organs;
that is, there are afferent nerve endings,
there are inputs from these afferent nerve
endings, and these inputs figure in the 'program'
of the brains in the vat just as they do
in the program of our brains. The brains
in a vat are brains; moreover, they are functioning
brains, and they function by the same rules
as brains do in the actual world. For these
reasons, it would seem absurd to deny consciousness
or intelligence to them. But the fact that
they are conscious and intelligent does not
mean that their words refer to what our words
refer. The question we are interested in
is this: do their verbalizations containing,
say, the word 'tree' actually refer to trees?
More generally: can they refer to external
objects at all? (As opposed to, for example,
objects in the image produced by the automatic
machinery.)
To fix our ideas, let us specify that the
automatic machinery is supposed to have come
into existence by some kind of cosmic chance
or coincidence (or, perhaps, to have always
existed). In this hypothetical world, the
automatic machinery itself is supposed to
have no intelligent creator-designers. In
fact, as we said at the beginning of this
chapter, we may imagine that all sentient
beings (however minimal their sentience)
are inside the vat.
This assumption does not help. For there
is no connection between the word 'tree'
as used by these brains and actual trees.
They would still use the word 'tree' just
as they do, think just the thoughts they
do, have just the images they have, even
if there were no actual trees. Their images,
words, etc., are qualitatively identical
with images, words, etc., which do represent
trees in our world; but we have already seen
(the ant again!) that qualitative similarity
to something which represents an object (Winston
Churchill or a tree) does not make a thing
a representation itself. In short, the brains
in a vat are not thinking about real trees
when they think 'there is a tree in front
of me' because there is nothing by virtue
of which their thought 'tree' represents
actual trees.
If this seems hasty, reflect on the following:
we have seen that the words do not necessarily
refer to trees even if they are arranged
in a sequence which is identical with a discourse
which (were it to occur in one of our minds)
would unquestionably be about trees in the
actual world. Nor does the 'program', in
the sense of the rules, practices, dispositions
of the brains to verbal behavior, necessarily
refer to trees or bring about reference to
trees through the connections it establishes
between words and words, or linguistic cues
and linguistic responses. If these brains
think about, refer to, represent trees (real
trees, outside the vat), then it must be
because of the way the program connects the
system of language to non-verbal input and
outputs. There are indeed such non-verbal
inputs and outputs in the Brain-in-a-Vat
world (those efferent and afferent nerve
endings again!), but we also saw that the
'sense-data' produced by the automatic machinery
do not represent trees (or anything external)
even when they resemble our tree images exactly.
Just as a splash of paint might resemble
a tree picture without being a tree picture,
so, we saw, a 'sense datum' might be qualitatively
identical with an 'image of a tree' without
being an image of a tree. How can the fact
that, in the case of the brains in a vat,
the language is connected by the program
with sensory inputs which do not intrinsically
or extrinsically represent trees (or anything
external) possibly bring it about that the
whole system of representations, the language
in use, does refer to or represent trees
or any thing external?
The answer is that it cannot. The whole system
of sense-data, motor signals to the efferent
endings, and verbally or conceptually mediated
thought connected by 'language entry rules'
to the sense-data (or whatever) as inputs
and by 'language exit rules' to the motor
signals as outputs, has no more connection
to trees than the ant's curve has to Winston
Churchill. Once we see that the qualitative
similarity (amounting, if you like, to qualitative
identity) between the thoughts of the brains
in a vat and the thoughts of someone in the
actual world by no means implies sameness
of reference, it is not hard to see that
there is no basis at all for regarding the
brain in a vat as referring to external things.
The premisses of the argument
I have now given the argument promised to
show that the brains in a vat cannot think
or say that they are brains in a vat. It
remains only to make it explicit and to examine
its structure.
By what was just said, when the brain in
a vat (in the world where every sentient
being is and always was a brain in a vat)
thinks 'There is a tree in front of me',
his thought does not refer to actual trees.
On some theories that we shall discuss it
might refer to trees in the image, or to
the electronic impulses that cause tree experiences,
or to the features of the program that are
responsible for those electronic impulses.
These theories are not ruled out by what
was just said, for there is a close causal
connection between the use of the word 'tree'
in vat-English and the presence of trees
in the image, the presence of electronic
impulses of a certain kind, and the presence
of certain features in the machine's program.
On these theories the brain is right, not
wrong in thinking 'There is a tree in front
of me.' Given what 'tree' refers to in vat-English
and what 'in front of' refers to, assuming
one of these theories is correct, then the
truth conditions for 'There is a tree in
front of me' when it occurs in vat-English
are simply that a tree in the image be 'in
front of' the 'me' in question in the image
or, perhaps, that the kind of electronic
impulse that normally produces this experience
be coming from the automatic machinery, or,
perhaps, that the feature of the machinery
that is supposed to produce the 'tree in
front of one' experience be operating. And
these truth conditions are certainly fulfilled.
By the same argument, 'vat' refers to vats
in the image in vat-English, or something
related (electronic impulses or program features),
but certainly not to real vats, since the
use of 'vat' in vat-English has no causal
connection to real vats (apart from the connection
that the brains in a vat wouldn't be able
to use the word 'vat', if it were not for
the presence of one particular vat the
vat they are in; but this connection obtains
between the use of every word in vat-English
and that one particular vat; it is not a
special connection between the use of the
particular word 'vat' and vats). Similarly,
'nutrient fluid' refers to a liquid in the
image in vat-English, or something related
(electronic impulses or program features).
It follows that if their 'possible world'
is really the actual one, and we are really
the brains in a vat, then what we now mean
by 'we are brains in a vat' is that we are
brains in a vat in the image or something
of that kind (if we mean any thing at all).
But part of the hypothesis that we are brains
in a vat is that we aren't brains in a vat
in the image (i. e. what we are 'hallucinating'
isn't that we are brains in a vat). So, if
we are brains in a vat, then the sentence
'We are brains in a vat' says something false
(if it says anything). In short, if we are
brains in a vat, then 'We are brains in a
vat' is false. So it is (necessarily) false.
The supposition that such a possibility makes
sense arises from a combination of two errors:
(1) taking physical possibility too seriously;
and (2) unconsciously operating with a magical
theory of reference, a theory on which certain
mental representations necessarily refer
to certain external things and kinds of things.
There is a 'physically possible world' in
which we are brains in a vat what does
this mean except that there is a description
of such a state of affairs which is compatible
with the laws of physics? Just as there is
a tendency in our culture (and has been since
the seventeenth century) to take physics
as our metaphysics, that is, to view the
exact sciences as the long-sought description
of the 'true and ultimate furniture of the
universe', so there is, as an immediate consequence,
a tendency to take 'physical possibility'
as the very touchstone of what might really
actually be the case. Truth is physical truth;
possibility physical possibility; and necessity
physical necessity, on such a view. But we
have just seen, if only in the case of a
very contrived example so far, that this
view is wrong. The existence of a 'physically
possible world' in which we are brains in
a vat (and always were and will be) does
not mean that we might really, actually,
possibly be brains in a vat. What rules out
this possibility is not physics but philosophy.
Some philosophers, eager both to assert and
minimize the claims of their profession at
the same time (the typical state of mind
of Anglo-American philosophy in the twentieth
century), would say: 'Sure. You have shown
that some things that seem to be physical
possibilities are really conceptual impossibilities.
What's so surprising about that?'
Well, to be sure, my argument can be described
as a 'conceptual' one. But to describe philosophical
activity as the search for 'conceptual' truths
makes it all sound like inquiry about the
meaning of words. And that is not at all
what we have been engaging in.
What we have been doing is considering the
preconditions for thinking about, representing,
referring to, etc. We have investigated these
preconditions not by investigating the meaning
of these words and phrases (as a linguist
might, for example) but by reasoning a priori.
Not in the old 'absolute' sense (since we
don't claim that magical theories of reference
are a priori wrong), but in the sense of
inquiring into what is reasonably possible
assuming certain general premisses, or making
certain very broad theoretical assumptions.
Such a procedure is neither 'empirical' nor
quite 'a priori', but has elements of both
ways of investigating. In spite of the fallibility
of my procedure, and its dependence upon
assumptions which might be described as 'empirical'
(e. g. the assumption that the mind has no
access to external things or properties apart
from that provided by the senses), my procedure
has a close relation to what Kant called
a 'transcendental' investigation; for it
is an investigation, I repeat, of the preconditions
of reference and hence of thought preconditions
built in to the nature of our minds themselves,
though not (as Kant hoped) wholly independent
of empirical assumptions.
One of the premisses of the argument is obvious:
that magical theories of reference are wrong,
wrong for mental representations and not
only for physical ones. The other premiss
is that one cannot refer to certain kinds
of things, e. g. trees, if one has no causal
interaction at all with them, 3 or with things
in terms of which they can be described.
But why should we accept these premisses?
Since these constitute the broad framework
within which I am arguing, it is time to
examine them more closely. The reasons for
denying necessary connections between representations
and their referents
I mentioned earlier that some philosophers
(most famously, Brentano) have ascribed to
the mind a power, 'intentionality', which
precisely enables it to refer. Evidently,
I have rejected this as no solution. But
what gives me this right? Have I, perhaps,
been too hasty?
These philosophers did not claim that we
can think about external things or properties
without using representations at all. And
the argument I gave above comparing visual
sense data to the ant's 'picture' (the argument
via the science fiction story about the 'picture'
of a tree that came from a paint-splash and
that gave rise to sense data qualitatively
similar to our 'visual images of trees',
but unaccompanied by any concept of a tree)
would be accepted as showing that images
do not necessarily refer. If there are mental
representations that necessarily refer (to
external things) they must be of the nature
of concepts and not of the nature of images.
But what are concepts?
When we introspect we do not perceive 'concepts'
flowing through our minds as such. Stop the
stream of thought when or where we will,
what we catch are words, images, sensations,
feelings. When I speak my thoughts out loud
I do not think them twice. I hear my words
as you do. To be sure it feels different
to me when I utter words that I believe and
when I utter words I do not believe (but
sometimes, when I am nervous, or in front
of a hostile audience, it feels as if I am
lying when I know I am telling the truth);
and it feels different when I utter words
I understand and when I utter words I do
not understand. But I can imagine without
difficulty someone thinking just these words
(in the sense of saying them in his mind)
and having just the feeling of understanding,
asserting, etc., that I do, and realizing
a minute later (or on being awakened by a
hypnotist) that he did not understand what
had just passed through his mind at all,
that he did not even understand the language
these words are in. I don't claim that this
is very likely; I simply mean that there
is nothing at all unimaginable about this.
And what this shows is not that concepts
are words (or images, sensations, etc.),
but that to attribute a 'concept' or a 'thought'
to someone is quite different from attributing
any mental 'presentation', any introspectible
entity or event, to him. Concepts are not
mental presentations that intrinsically refer
to external objects for the very decisive
reason that they are not mental presentations
at all. Concepts are signs used in a certain
way; the signs may be public or private,
mental entities or physical entities, but
even when the signs are 'mental' and 'private',
the sign itself apart from its use is not
the concept. And signs do not themselves
intrinsically refer.
We can see this by performing a very simple
thought experiment. Suppose you are like
me and cannot tell an elm tree from a beech
tree. We still say that the reference of
'elm' in my speech is the same as the reference
of 'elm' in anyone else's, viz, elm trees,
and that the set of all beech trees is the
extension of 'beech' (i. e. the set of things
the word 'beech' is truly predicated of)
both in your speech and my speech. Is it
really credible that the difference between
what 'elm' refers to and what 'beech' refers
to is brought about by a difference in our
concepts? My concept of an elm tree is exactly
the same as my concept of a beech tree (I
blush to confess). (This shows that the determination
of reference is social and not individual,
by the way; you and I both defer to experts
who can tell elms from beeches.) If someone
heroically attempts to maintain that the
difference between the reference of 'elm'
and the reference of 'beech' in my speech
is explained by a difference in my psychological
state, then let ham imagine a Twin Earth
where the words are switched. Twin Earth
is very much like Earth; in fact, apart from
the fact that 'elm' and 'beech' are interchanged,
the reader can suppose Twin Earth is exactly
like Earth. Suppose I have a Doppelganger
on Twin Earth who is molecule for molecule
identical with me (in the sense in which
two neckties can be 'identical'). If you
are a dualist, then suppose my Doppelganger
thinks the same verbalized thoughts I do,
has the same sense data, the same dispositions,
etc. It is absurd to think his psychological
state is one bit different from mine: yet
his word 'elm' represents beeches, and my
word 'elm' represents elms. (Similarly, if
the 'water' on Twin Earth is a different
liquid say, XYZ and not H2O then 'water'
represents a different liquid when used on
Twin Earth and when used on Earth, etc.)
Contrary to a doctrine that has been with
us since the seventeenth century, meanings
just aren't in the head.
We have seen that possessing a concept is
not a matter of possessing images (say, of
trees or even images, 'visual' or 'acoustic',
of sentences, or whole discourses, for that
matter) since one could possess any system
of images you please and not possess the
ability to use the sentences in situationally
appropriate ways (considering both linguistic
factors what has been said before and
non-linguistic factors as determining 'situational
appropriateness'). A man may have all the
images you please, and still be completely
at a loss when one says to him 'point to
a tree', even if a lot of trees are present.
He may even have the image of what he is
supposed to do, and still not know what he
is supposed to do. For the image, if not
accompanied by the ability to act in a certain
way, is just a picture, and acting in accordance
with a picture is itself an ability that
one may or may not have. (The man might picture
himself pointing to a tree, but just for
the sake of contemplating something logically
possible; himself pointing to a tree after
someone has produced the to him meaningless
sequence of sounds 'please point to a tree'.)
He would still not know that he was supposed
to point to a tree, and he would still not
understand 'point to a tree'.
I have considered the ability to use certain
sentences to be the criterion for possessing
a full-blown concept, but this could easily
be liberalized. We could allow symbolism
consisting of elements which are not words
in a natural language, for example, and we
could allow such mental phenomena as images
and other types of internal events. What
is essential is that these should have the
same complexity, ability to be combined with
each other, etc., as sentences in a natural
language. For, although a particular presentation
say, a blue flash might serve a particular
mathematician as the inner expression of
the whole proof of the Prime Number Theorem,
still there would be no temptation to say
this (and it would be false to say this)
if that mathematician could not unpack his
'blue flash' into separate steps and logical
connections. But, no matter what sort of
inner phenomena we allow as possible expressions
of thought, arguments exactly similar to
the foregoing will show that it is not the
phenomena themselves that constitute understanding,
but rather the ability of the thinker to
employ these phenomena, to produce the right
phenomena in the right circumstances.
The foregoing is a very abbreviated version
of Wittgenstein's argument in Philosophical
Investigations. If it is correct, then the
attempt to understand thought by what is
called 'phenomenological' investigation is
fundamentally misguided; for what the phenomenologists
fail to see is that what they are describing
is the inner expression of thought, but that
the understanding of that expression one's
understanding of one's own thoughts is
not an occurrence but an ability. Our example
of a man pretending to think in Japanese
(and deceiving a Japanese telepath) already
shows the futility of a phenomenological
approach to the problem of understanding.
For even if there is some introspectible
quality which is present when and only when
one really understands (this seems false
on introspection, in fact), still that quality
is only correlated with understanding, and
it is still possible that the man fooling
the Japanese telepath have that quality too
and still not understand a word of Japanese.
On the other hand, consider the perfectly
possible man who does not have any 'interior
monologue' at all. He speaks perfectly good
English, and if asked what his opinions are
on a given subject, he will give them at
length. But he never thinks (in words, images,
etc.) when he is not speaking out loud; nor
does anything 'go through his head', except
that (of course) he hears his own voice speaking,
and has the usual sense impressions from
his surroundings, plus a general 'feeling
of understanding'.
(Perhaps he is in the habit of talking to
himself.) When he types a letter or goes
to the store, etc., he is not having an internal
'stream of thought'; but his actions are
intelligent and purposeful, and if anyone
walks up and asks him 'What are you doing?'
he will give perfectly coherent replies.
This man seems perfectly imaginable. No one
would hesitate to say that he was conscious,
disliked rock and roll (if he frequently
expressed a strong aversion to rock and roll),
etc., just because he did not think conscious
thoughts except when speaking out loud.
What follows from all this is that (a) no
set of mental events images or more 'abstract'
mental happenings and qualities constitutes
understanding; and (b) no set of mental events
is necessary for understanding. In particular,
concepts cannot be identical with mental
objects of any kind. For, assuming that by
a mental object we mean something introspectible,
we have just seen that whatever it is, it
may be absent in a man who does understand
the appropriate word (and hence has the full
blown concept), and present in a man who
does not have the concept at all.
Coming back now to our criticism of magical
theories of reference (a topic which also
concerned Wittgenstein), we see that, on
the one hand, those 'mental objects' we can
introspectively detect words, images, feelings,
etc. do not intrinsically refer any more
than the ant's picture does (and for the
same reasons), while the attempts to postulate
special mental objects, 'concepts', which
do have a necessary connection with their
referents, and which only trained phenomenologists
can detect, commit a logical blunder; for
concepts are (at least in part) abilities
and not occurrences. The doctrine that there
are mental presentations which necessarily
refer to external things is not only bad
natural science; it is also bad phenomenology
and conceptual confusion. Endnotes
1 In this book the terms 'representation'
and 'reference' always refer to a relation
between a word (or other sort of sign, symbol,
or representation) and something that actually
exists (i. e. not just an 'object of thought').
There is a sense of 'refer' in which I can
'refer' to what does not exist; this is not
the sense in which 'refer' is used here.
An older word for what I call 'representation'
or 'reference' is denotation. Secondly, I
follow the custom of modern logicians and
use 'exist' to mean 'exist in the past, present,
or future'. Thus Winston Churchill 'exists',
and we can 'refer to' or 'represent' Winston
Churchill, even though he is no longer alive.
2 A. M. Turing, 'Computing Machinery and
Intelligence', Mind (1950), reprinted in
A. K. Anderson (ed.), Minds and Machines.
3 If the Brains in a Vat will have causal
connection with, say, trees in the future,
then perhaps they can now refer to trees
by the description 'the things I will refer
to as "trees" at such and such
a future time'. But we are to imagine a case
in which the Brains in a Vat never get out
of the vat, and hence never get into causal
connection with trees, etc.
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